Physical
Science 100

Professor Grant W. Mason

College of Physical and Mathematical Sciences
Brigham Young University

imagemap navigator


Study Guide Multiple Choice Questions


Multiple Choice questions are found below. Choose and click on what you believe to be the correct answer. The computer will sound an alert only if you choose the wrong answer. If you miss it, you may then make another choice on the same question. Your score will be reported here at the end after you have attempted all of the questions.

Table of Contents


Click here for TEST 1

Click here for TEST 2

Click here for TEST 3

Click here for TEST 4

Click here to return to the Master Table of Contents







TEST 1: Chapters 1-9
Of the five levels of organization listed here, which is the second in order of increasing size and complexity?
Quark
Apple
Moon
Gold Nucleus
Protein Molecule
(The purpose of the question is to test your familiarity with the basic levels of organization and structure that are evident in the universe. )



Which of the following forces is electrical?
weight of a book
force exerted by a book on a table
gravitational force of earth
force keeping the moon in orbit
force keeping the solar system together
(The purpose of this question is to test your familiarity with the four fundamental forces of nature and particularly to see if you can identify a practical example of one of these.)



While riding your bicycle you collide head-on with a moving car. The acceleration you experience is
the same as that of the car
slightly greater than that of the car
slightly less than that of the car
much less than that of the car
much greater than that of the car
(We understand motion in terms of Newton's three laws of motion. The purpose of this question is to test whether you understand Newton's Second and Third Laws of motion.)



When a glass rod is rubbed with rubber, the rod becomes positively charged. This is because
protons are transferred from rubber to glass
protons are transferred from glass to rubber
electrons are transferred from glass to rubber
electrons are transferred from rubber to glass
electrons and protons annihilate each other
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of the Electrical Model of Matter and specifically what we mean within that model when we say that an object has a "positive" charge. )



You get in an elevator and start from rest to move upward. This is possible because
of a reduced gravitational force.
of an increased gravitational force.
of a single force acting upward on you.
the upward force of the elevator is greater than the force of gravity.
of three upward and downward forces acting.
(The question tests your ability to isolate an object and identify the significant forces on that object that directly control its motion. To answer the question correctly, you must be able to differentiate between uniform and accelerated motion. In this instance the elevator is speeding up.)



Two objects attract each other gravitationally. Object one has twice the mass of the second. Which is true?
The force on object one is twice that on object two.
The force on object one is half that on object two.
The force on object one is equal to that on object two.
The acceleration of object one is twice that of object two.
The acceleration of object one is equal that of object two.
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of Newton's laws of motion and a key feature of Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation.)



An object sinks in oil but floats in water. Which is true?
The above situation is not possible.
Oil decreases the gravitational force on an object.
Water increases the gravitational force on an object.
The buoyant force on the object in oil is greater than the gravitational force on the object.
The buoyant force on the object in water is equal to the gravitational force on the object.
(The purpose of this question is to test your understanding of the concept of buoyant force. To answer the question you must also understand Newton's laws of motion and Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation.)



Which of the following is false?
Mass is conserved in chemical reactions.
Mass is conserved in "mechanical" reactions.
Internal energy is conserved in all reactions.
Charge is conserved in all reactions.
Charge is conserved in chemical reactions.
("Mechanical reactions" means interactions, such as collisions or other exertion of forces that change the kinetic energy and/or the gravitational or electrical potential energy of the objects. In this question it is assumed that any effects of the Special Theory of Relativity can be ignored.)



Which of the following involves a radiative energy transfer process ("radiation")?
Airflow in a warm air furnace.
Falling object.
Bonfire heat reaching a camper.
Light passing through a window pane.
Gasoline burning in an auto engine.
(Which of the above is PRIMARILY the process we have called "radiation" even if radiation might be involved secondarily in one or more of the others?)



Which of the following are demonstrations of symmetry principles?
The motion of a Foucault pendulum on the earth.
The stellar parallax as seen from earth.
Australian and American scientists get the same experimental results in identical experiments.
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of the meaning of "symmetry" as it is used in science. In particular, it tests your understanding of specific symmetries (motion, position, or time.)


Which of the following is a postulate of the Special Theory of Relativity rather than a prediction?
An object's mass increases with speed.
The speed of light in empty space is the same for all observers.
Lengths contract in the direction of motion.
Moving clocks run slow.
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of the logical structure of the Special Theory of Relativity. Specifically, it tests whether you recognize the basic postulates of the theory and can differentiate them from logical predictions of the theory.)


An astronaut measures the mass and length of a rod before taking it on a flight to the sun. While traveling to the sun at near the speed of light he measures the rod again while he is in the space ship. What does he find?
(Relativistic) mass is the same and length is the same.
(Relativistic) mass is larger but length is the same.
(Relativistic) mass is the same but length is longer.
(Relativistic) mass is larger but length is shorter.
(Relativistic) mass is larger but length is longer.
(The purpose of the above question is to test whether you understand the basic conceptual predictions of Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity, i.e., how measurements of length and mass depend on the relative motion of observer and the thing observed. Strictly speaking, the word "observed" means "measured.")


(Click here to return to the Table of Contents and check your score.)

TEST 2: Chapters 10-17
Which of the following processes does NOT produce a change of physical state?
melting ice.
dissociating gas atoms (evaporation).
freezing water.
boiling water.
falling object.
(The purpose of the question is to see if you understand the concept of "physical state" as it is applied to matter.)


Overall disorder is unchanged in
chemical processes.
mechanical processes.
irreversible processes.
reversible processes.
nuclear power generation.
(The question tests your understanding of the Law of Increasing Disorder (Second Law of Thermodynamics).)


The direction of wave travel is observed to change as waves move from one medium into another medium because of the different wave speeds in the two media. This wave phenomenon is that of
refraction.
diffraction.
reflection.
interference.
superposition.
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of the basic vocabulary describing different things that waves do (wave phenomena).)


Which of the following is (are) an example of a compressional wave?
sound in air.
wave going from earth's surface through the earth's center.
wave on a violin string.
first and third choices above.
first and second choices above.
(The question tests your understanding of a significant difference between "compressional" waves and "shear" waves.)


Which of the following is FALSE regarding red and blue light?
both travel with the same speed (in a vacuum).
both produce interference patterns.
both produce diffraction patterns.
both have photons of the same energy.
they have different wavelengths.
(The purpose of the question is to allow you to demonstrate a basic familiarity with the similarities and differences in the family of electromagnetic waves ("light"). The question asks which is FALSE.)


The particle nature of light is demonstrated by
reflection.
refraction.
interference.
diffraction.
photoelectric effect.
(Light has a peculiar nature, acting sometimes as a wave and sometimes as a particle. The purpose of the question is to test whether you understand the physical evidence for light acting as a particle.)


Which of the following would form an interference pattern?
electrons.
blue light.
radio waves.
sound waves.
all of the above.
(Interference is a wave phenomenon. The purpose of this question is to see if you understand what kinds of things behave like waves. The question also requires that you understand the concept of wave-particle duality.)


The Uncertainty Principle
is an outcome of Newton's Laws of Motion.
applies mainly to subatomic particles.
conflicts with wave-particle duality.
supports strict determinism.
all of the above.
(The question tests whether you understand an important concept of the quantum description of the microscopic world. The Uncertainty Principle is sometimes referred to as the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle.)


Which of the following is the most complete (correct) model of the atom?
solar system model.
nuclear model.
Bohr model (modified solar system model).
wave model.
all of the above are equally complete and correct.
(There have been many models of the atom during the past century. The purpose of the question is to see if you understand how physical evidence (experiment) is used to discriminate among models in a search for a best model.)


(Click here to return to the Table of Contents and check your score.)

TEST 3: Chapters 18-25
List iron (Fe), rhodium (Rh), and platinum (Pt) in order of increasing density. (They all have about the same diameter.) (You will need a Periodic Table for this one.)
Pt Rh Fe.
Pt Fe Rh.
Rh Fe Pt.
Rh Pt Fe.
Fe Rh Pt.
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of the concept of "density" and to see if you can draw a simple conclusion about the density of elements from a knowledge of the sizes of atoms.)


Consult the Periodic Table. List the following atoms in order of increasing diameter: nitrogen (N), oxygen (O), phosphorus (P):
N O P.
N P O.
P N O.
P O N.
O N P.
(The purpose of the question is to test your familiarity with one of the prominent patterns in the Periodic Table. If you do not remember the pattern outright, you might reason to the correct answer from the fact that the sizes of atoms result from an interplay between the changing electrical force between nucleus and electrons and the demands of the Exclusion Principle. In this question, the effect of the electrical force dominates.)


Consult the Periodic Table. The atomic mass of a potassium (K) atom is about 39. The atom has
39 protons.
39 neutrons.
39 electrons.
19 neutrons.
19 protons.
(The purpose of the question is to test whether you can correctly interpret the information provided on the Periodic Table. To respond correctly you must be able to differentiate between atomic number and atomic mass.)


Consult the Periodic Table. How many valence electrons (and in what orbitals) does oxygen (O) have?
8 in p orbitals.
6 in p orbitals.
4 in p orbitals.
4 in s orbitals.
2 in s orbitals.
(The question tests your familiarity with the organization of the Wave Model of the Atom. To respond correctly you must have a basic understanding of s-orbitals, p-orbitals, and the Exclusion Principle.)


Consult the Periodic Table. Which atom has the lowest ionization energy?
hydrogen (H).
helium (He).
lithium (Li).
beryllium (Be).
aluminum (Al).
(The question tests your familiarity with one of several prominent patterns in the Periodic Table. If you do not remember the pattern, you might reason your way to the correct answer by considering which elements in the Periodic Table readily give up electrons or lose electrons in chemical reactions and which do not.)


Consult the Periodic Table. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Elements in a row of the Periodic Table progress from metal to nonmetal (left to right).
Elements in a column are chemically similar.
Lithium (Li), sodium (Na), and potassium (K) are chemically similar.
Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar) and krypton (Kr) are chemically active solids.
Fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), and bromine (Br) are chemically active gases.
(The purpose of this question is to test your understanding of basic patterns in the Periodic Table.)


Which of the following are most chemically similar to chlorine (Cl)?
Fluorine(F) and bromine (Br).
Copper (Cu) and gold (Au).
Sodium (Na) and potassium (K).
Phosphorus (P) and sulfur (S).
Bromine (Br) and krypton (Kr).
(The purpose of the question is to see if you recognize and can apply one of the prominent patterns in the Periodic Table. "Chemically similar" means that the elements behave similarly in chemical reactions.)


Which of the following equations are balanced?
2C + O2---> 2CO.
H2 + F2 ---> HF.
Mg + F2 --->MgF2.
2H2O2 ---> H2O + O2.
(The purpose of the question is to allow you to demonstrate that you understand what is meant by a "balanced chemical reaction.")


Which of the following equations are balanced?
Ca + O2 ---> CaO.
NaOH + HCl ---> H2O + NaCl.
4Al + 3O2 ---> 2Al2O3.
NO2 + H2O ---> HNO3.
(The purpose of the question is to allow you to demonstrate that you understand what is meant by a "balanced chemical reaction.")


Which of the following is NOT a compound?
sulfur dioxide.
nitrous oxide.
water molecule.
oxygen molecule.
rust.
(The question tests your knowledge of basic vocabulary. Can you differentiate among "elements", "compounds", and "mixtures"? Note that the question asks which is NOT a compound.)


Which equation is balanced correctly?
H2 + O2 ---> 2H2O.
H2 +O2 ---> H2O.
Ca + Cl2 ---> CaCl2.
S + O2 ---> SO4.
N2 + O2 ---> NO.
(The purpose of the question is to allow you to demonstrate that you understand what is meant by a "balanced chemical reaction.")


Consult the Periodic Table. Which of the following pairs of metals is most likely to form alloys of all compositions?
Barium (Ba) and galium (Ga).
Tin (Sn) and lead (Pb).
Lithium (Li) and bismuth (Bi).
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of what is meant by "metallic bond" and a prominent pattern in the Periodic Table associated with it.)


Consult the Periodic Table. Which of the following pairs of metals is most likely to form alloys of all proportions?
Cesium (Cs) and indium (In).
Platinum (Pt) and gold (Au).
Lead (Pb) and potassium (K).
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of what is meant by "metallic bond" and a prominent pattern in the Periodic Table associated with it.)


Consult the Periodic Table. Which of the following is an ionic compound?
O2.
NH3.
CO2.
CH4.
MgF2.
(The purpose of the question is to test whether you understand the origins of the three major chemical bonds (metallic, ionic, covalent) and can reason which bond applies from positions of atoms in the Periodic Table.)


Consult the Periodic Table. The correct formula for potassium sulfide is
KS.
K2S.
KS2.
K3S.
KS3.
(The purpose of the question is to allow you to demonstrate the basic skill of using the Periodic Table to predict the chemical formula of a possible compound.)


Consult the Periodic Table. Determine the primary oxidation state for rubidium (Rb). If two Rb atoms combine with one S atom, what is the oxidation state of S?
+2.
+1.
0.
-1.
-2.
(The purpose of the question is to see if you understand the important concept of "oxidation state" and can use the Periodic Table to identify the primary oxidation states of selected atoms.)


Consult the Periodic Table. Which of the following pairs of elements would you expect to be covalently bonded (no ionic or metallic bonds)?
Cobalt (Co) and nickel (Ni).
Potassium (K) and fluorine (F).
Phosphorus (P) and oxygen (O).
Sodium (Na) and indium (In).
(The purpose of the question is to test whether you understand the origins of the three major chemical bonds (metallic, ionic, covalent) and can reason which bond applies from positions of atoms in the Periodic Table.)


Consult the Periodic Table. Which of the following pairs of elements would you expect to be covalently bonded??
Chlorine (Cl) and indium (In) .
Cesium (Cs) and bromine (Br).
Silicon (Si) and fluorine (F).
(The purpose of the question is to test whether you understand the origins of the three major chemical bonds (metallic, ionic, covalent) and can reason which bond applies from positions of atoms in the Periodic Table.)


Consult the Periodic Table. A diatomic molecule consists of one F atom and one Cl atom. How many covalent bonds exist between the two atoms?
single.
double.
triple.
quadruple.
none of the above.
(The purpose of the question is to see if you understand what is meant by a "covalent bond.")


Consult the Periodic Table. Determine the metal or nonmetal nature of carbon (C) and oxygen (O). If C and O form a compound, which of the following properties will it have?
metallic alloy, conducting.
transparent gas.
metallic allow, nonconducting.
brittle, transparent solid, nonconducting.
greenish liquid.
(The question tests whether you understand the physical properties that are associated with one of the three major chemical bonds (metallic, ionic, covalent).)


Seemingly different living things are remarkable alike in many regards at the molecular level. The most abundant elements in a cow (in percent of dry weight) are (in decreasing order) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, and calcium. What is the second most abundant element in an oak tree?
carbon.
oxygen.
nitrogen.
hydrogen.
calcium.
(The purpose of the question is to see if you recognize a striking pattern that relates two very different life forms.)


DNA is composed of which of the following simpler structures?
nucleotides.
enzymes.
catalysts.
chlorophyll.
insulin.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are.)


A nucleotide is composed of which of the following simpler structures?
phosphate group.
ribose or deoxyribose.
organic bases.
all of the above.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are. The question does not intend that all of the simpler structures should be found simultaneously in a single nucleotide.)


Which simpler structure(s) are NOT to be found in a sugar?
hydroxyl group.
carbon-oxygen covalent bonds.
carbon-hydrogen covalent bonds.
carbon-carbon covalent bonds.
carboxyl group.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of a molecule important to life. Note that the question asks which is NOT to be found in a sugar.)


Proteins are composed of which simpler structures?
chlorophyll.
nucleotides.
sugars.
amino acids.
nucleic acids.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are.)


Which functional group is associated with acid properties?
carbonyl group.
carboxyl group.
hydroxyl group.
amino group.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are. The functional group sought in this question gives acid properties to amino acids.)


Which functional group contains nitrogen?
carbonyl group.
carboxyl group.
hydroxyl group.
amino group.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are.)


All amino acids contain which two simpler structures?
amino group and carbonyl group.
amino group and carboxyl group.
amino group and hydroxyl group.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are.)


When two sugar molecules chain together(or two amino acids), what simple molecule is produced BESIDES the longer chain?
carbon dioxide (CO2).
methane (CH4).
water (H2O).
hydrogen sulfide (H2S).
ammonia (NH3).
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand a process that allows molecules to chain together. The question asks you to identify an important byproduct of this chaining process.)


When two amino acids chain together, which two functional groups are involved at the point of the splice?
hydroxyl group.
carbonyl group.
carboxyl group.
amino group.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand a process that allows molecules to chain together. The question asks you to identify the functional groups responsible for the connection.)


Approximately how many different kinds of amino acids are important to living organisms?
2.
20.
2,000.
2,000,000.
More than 2 billion.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are. The question asks how many different amino acids altogether are used by living organisms to build protein.)


Approximately how many different kinds of organic bases are incorporated in DNA?
4.
40.
4000.
4,000,000.
More than 4 billion.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are. The questions asks how many different KINDS of organic bases altogether are found in the DNA of living organisms.)


If a DNA molecule were analyzed, there would be equal amounts of which two bases?
A and G.
A and T.
A and C.
G and T.
C and T.
(The purpose of the question is to test for basic familiarity with DNA. Which bases bond together in DNA?)


If a DNA molecule were divided along its length and on one half, in order, were found the bases ACGT, what would be the bases on the other half, in corresponding order?
ACGT.
ACGU.
CATG.
GTAC.
TGCA.
(The purpose of the question is to test for basic familiarity with DNA. Which bases bond together in DNA?)


Which of the following is FALSE?
Carbohydrates contain hydroxyl groups.
Amino acids chain to form proteins.
RNA and DNA are proteins.
Nucleotides chain to form nucleic acids.
Nucleotides contain organic bases.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are. Note that the question asks which is FALSE.)


Which of the following is FALSE?
RNA is usually double stranded.
RNA and DNA contain different sugars.
RNA and DNA share three common bases.
DNA contains equal amounts of bases A and T.
DNA contains equal amounts of bases C and G.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand the basic chemical structure of living organisms and what the building blocks of life are. Note that the question asks which is FALSE.)


Which of the following is true regarding the isotopes of an element?
They are equally radioactive.
They have the same atomic mass.
They have the same number of neutrons.
They have the same number of protons.
The have different numbers of protons.
(The questions tests your understanding of basic vocabulary of nuclear physics. What is the meaning of the word "isotope"?)


Which of the following is NOT a legitimate radioactive decay?
79Au198 decays to 80Hg198 + -1electron0 + 0neutrino0
84Po212 decays to 82Pb208 + 2He4
27Co60 decays to 26Fe60 + -1electron0 + 0neutrino0
80Hg198 decays to 80Hg198 + 0gamma ray0
6C11 decays to 5B11 + +1positron0 + 0neutrino0
(The purpose of the question is to test whether you recognize important conservation laws that govern radioactive decay. No distinction is made here between neutrinos and antineutrinos. The word "neutrino" stands for either. Note that the question asks which is NOT a legitimate radioactive decay.)


Nuclear potential energy is
the source of energy in nuclear fusion.
the source of energy in nuclear fission.
Converted to kinetic energy in nuclear fission.
converted to kintetic energy in nuclear fusion.
all of the above.
(The question tests your understanding of the concept of energy conservation as it occurs in nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.)


Which of the following is FALSE?
There are working fission power reactors.
There are working fusion power reactors.
There are working fusion bombs.
There are working fission bombs.
Fusion reactions power the sun.
(The question tests your understanding of the difference between "nuclear fission" and "nuclear fusion" and whether you understand technological applications of each. Note that the question asks which is FALSE.)


(Click here to return to the Table of Contents and check your score.)

TEST 4: Chapters 26-34
The universe is thought to be expanding. What is the best evidence for this?
cosmological redshift.
microwave background radiation.
gravitational slowing of expansion.
electrical repulsion of charged objects.
Helium/Hydrogen abundances.
(The purpose of the question is to test whether you understand the PRIMARY physical evidence upon which the idea of an expanding universe is based.)


Which one of the following is "acceptable" in both the Big Bang and Steady State Models?
microwave background radiation.
Helium/Hydrogen abundances.
universe is expanding.
expansion rate is slowing.
matter is created continuously and spontaneously.
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of similiarities and distinguishing differences between two models of the universe. The question asks for a COMMON feature of the two models.)


Pick the following set of star name, energy source, size, and lifetime that are consistent?
protostar, gravity, small, long.
normal (sun), hydrogen, medium, short.
red giant, carbon, large, short.
normal (sun), helium, medium, long.
white dwarf, helium, small, long.
(The question tests your understanding of basic correlated characteristics of different stages in the lifetime of a star.)


A black hole was once a star with mass
equal to that of the sun.
a small fraction that of the sun.
about 90 percent that of the sun.
many times that of the sun.
about twice that of the sun.
(The purpose of the question is to test your understanding of the conditions that lead to the origin of a "black hole.")


Which of the following lists contains a feature not found in the oceans?
trenches, abyssal hills, ocean ridges.
ocean ridges, island arcs, trenches.
abyssal plains, stable platforms, ocean ridges.
island arcs, trenches, linear island chains.
(The question tests your familiarity with the generic features of the oceanic crust. To respond correctly, you must be able to separate these characteristics from the generic features of the continents (continental crust).)


When angular momentum is conserved,
stationary objects begin spinning.
spinning objects always spin faster as time elapses.
spinning objects may either speed up or slow down.
larger objects spin faster than smaller ones.
(The question tests your understanding of the conservation of angular momentum. An Olympic ice skater uses this principle when she draws in her arms while spinning. In this question, "larger" means having a greater diameter or spread.)


Continents contain
granitic rocks.
folded rocks.
stable platforms.
all of the above.
none of the above.
(The question tests your understanding of the generic features of continents (continental crust).)


The Jovian planets
are rocky in composition.
are larger than the terrestrial planets.
are closer to the sun than the terrestrial planets.
are denser than the terrestrial planets.
(The question tests your understanding of a classification of the solar planets. It may help to know that "Jove" is another name for the god "Jupiter" and that "Terra" is another name for "Earth.")


Which of the following choices is NOT used in relative dating?
radioactive isotopes.
principle of superposition.
principle of cross-cutting relations.
principle of inclusion.
(The purpose of the question is to see if you can discriminate among methods used to measure absolute and relative geologic time. Note that the question asks which is NOT used in relative dating.)


If a sedimentary rock layer lies on top of a lava flow dated radiometrically at 44 million years, but is itself cut by an igneous body dated at 27 million years,
is less than 27 million years.
is more than 44 million years.
is the average of 27 and 44 million years, or 35.5 million years.
is between 27 and 44 million years.
(The purpose of the question is to see if you can discriminate among methods used to measure absolute and relative geologic time and whether you can apply the methods in a simple case to draw a reasoned conclusion.)


To be useful as geologic clocks, radioactive isotopes must be
extremely rare and have long half-lives.
extremely rare and have short half-lives.
fairly common and have long half-lives.
fairly common and have short-half-lives.
(The question tests whether you understand how radioactive isotopes might be used to measure times of geologic interest (many thousands of years). "Short" in this question means less than a year. "Long" means a thousand years or longer.)


A fault that cuts through a sedimentary rock layer is?
younger than that layer.
older than that layer.
either the first or the second choice above, depending on how the absolute dating turns out.
(The questions tests whether you understand a particular method of determing relative geologic time and can apply it in a simple case.)


From center to surface, the chemically distinct layers of the earth are
inner core, outer core, mantle, crust.
core, mantle, lithosphere.
inner core, outer core, lower mantle, upper mantle, crust.
core, mantle, crust.
(This question requires that you know the difference between two different ways that the layers of the earth are designated: by physical characteristics (rigid, mushy, liquid, etc.) and by chemical composition (silicates, dense oxides, iron, etc.). This question asks about chemical composition.)


The asthenosphere consists of
completely molten peridotite.
partially molten peridotite.
completely solid peridotite.
rock that is either granitic or basalt, depending on location.
(The question tests for basic vocabulary. The nature of the "asthenosphere" is a key to understanding the Theory of Plate Tectonics. For this question it is sufficient to know that peridotite is a kind of rock found in the upper mantle.)


The occurrence of the Glossopteris flora in Permian rocks of South America, Africa, Antarctica, India, and Australia is evidence that
these plants have lived in the southern hemisphere since the Permian Period.
these plants can survive in a wide variety of climates.
the southern landmasses have separated since the Permian Period.
the southern landmasses have become closer since the Permian Period.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand how one important line of evidence associated with the Theory of Plate Tectonics is interpreted.)


Which of the following is NOT evidence for continental drift?
Changes in Paleozoic trilobites in North America and Europe.
The presence of Glossopteris on several continents.
Glaciated Permian rocks on several continents.
The geometrical fit of North America and Australia.
(The question tests your familiarity with some principle evidences associated with the Theory of Plate Tectonics. Note that the question asks which is NOT such an evidence. )


Convergent plate boundaries do NOT involve
subduction zones.
mountain-building events.
creation of new oceanic lithosphere.
deep ocean trenches.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you can differentiate among "convergent", "divergent", and "transform" plate boundaries. Note that the questions asks which does NOT characterize a "convergent" boundary.)


Among the following choices, earthquakes would least likely occur
in a young fold mountain belt.
in a continental shield.
at a transform fault.
along the oceanic ridge system.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand features of the earth and/or processes that can be explained using the Theory of Plate Tectonics as a conceptual framework. Note that the question asks for the "LEAST LIKELY" occurrence.)


The Theory of Plate Tectonics does NOT explain
where diverging convection currents will pull continents apart.
the location of most of the world's active volcanoes.
the origin of fold mountain belts.
the association of deep ocean trenches and island arcs.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand features of the earth and/or processes that can be explained using the Theory of Plate Tectonics as a conceptual framework. Note that the question asks which is NOT explained by the Theory of Plate Tectonics.)


The LEAST amount of plate tectonic activity would be found in which of these locations?
the California coastal area.
the Canadian shield.
Iceland.
Japan.
(The question allows you to demonstrate that you understand features of the earth and/or processes that can be explained using the Theory of Plate Tectonics as a conceptual framework. Note that the question asks for the location of the LEAST amount of plate tectonic activity.)


Of the following, which is LEAST likely to be fossilized?
clam.
bird.
fish.
worm.
(The question tests whether you understand the conditions that promote fossilization. Note that the question asks which is LEAST likely to be fossilized.)


Of the following, which is SECOND LEAST likely to be fossilized?
fish.
bird.
worm.
clam.
(The question tests whether you understand the conditions that promote fossilization. Note that the question asks which is SECOND LEAST likely to be fossilized.)


Of the following, which type of fossil would most likely be associated with coal beds?
alligator.
whale.
penguin.
camel.
(The question tests whether you understand the environment and time most likely associated with the formation of coal beds. Coal beds themselves are fossilized vegetation.)


Which of the following is a FALSE statement?
The rates of spreading that the tectonic plates have experienced in the past can affect the fossil record.
The direction of plate motion in the past can affect the fossil record.
The ancient organisms that reproduced most slowly had the greatest impact on the fossil record.
Chance modification of the DNA of an individual organism can affect the nature of the fossil record.
(The question tests your understanding of the origins of the fossil record of life. Note that the questions asks which is FALSE.)


The hydrologic system causes the most extensive changes in the surface of the earth through
running water.
glaciers.
shoreline processes.
wind.
(The question tests whether you understand which of several erosional agents has the greatest overall effect in shaping the earth's surface.)


Ice, running water, and wind are all able to transport sediment from a source area to an area of deposition. List these three in order of their ability to carry the largest particles (carrier of largest particles first).
Wind, ice, running water.
Running water, wind, ice.
Ice, wind, running water.
Ice, running water, wind.
(The question tests your understanding of the mechanisms of three important erosional agents.)


(Click here to return to the Table of Contents and check your score.)